Try the political quiz

Which political ideology do you most identify with?

Secularism

 @ISIDEWITHasked…5mos5MO

Would society be more harmonious without government involvement in religion?

 @9H785TX from Pennsylvania answered…5mos5MO

  @TruthHurts101 from Washington commented…5mos5MO

I couldn't disagree more completely. When the founding fathers separated church and state, they meant the state should not control the church not that the church should not control the state. Government will inevitably promote some form of moral agenda or religion – and let's face it, secularism is a faith-based belief in evolution, making it a religion – and why not push Christianity, which has proved most conducive to the liberties and happiness of a free people. PS: Before you attack me with talk of the "crusades" let me remind you that these were wars of self-defence against aggressive Islamists.

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas disagreed…5mos5MO

Nice try, but even the first amendment proves your initial argument wrong. Separation of church and state is incredibly good and important in keeping religion away from any kind of public legislation, because enforcing religious laws or values onto others is bad and wrong. Governments and law should always be exclusively secular.

Secondly, don't project your own belief's lack of evidence onto everyone else. Atheism, which you seem to have conflated with secularism, does not rely on faith to understand the objective reality of things like evolution or the age of the earth (without the…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington commented…5mos5MO

Christianity offers the only rational explanation for the Laws of Logic. Without an omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent, all-powerful one true God to create the Universe, there could be no exception-less, universal logical laws as we see in the universe today. The atheist believes that nothing exists beyond the physical – there is no spiritual world or anything like that. But, I would then ask, are the Laws of Logic physical entities that we can see and touch? No. Therefore atheists who are using the Laws of Logic to argue against Creation are inadvertently proving that it's true, because, in their worldview, if it was consistent, they wouldn't be able to reason at all. They have to borrow from the theistic worldview in order to argue against it, which creates an absurdity. I await your response.

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas disagreed…5mos5MO

I assume you are referring to the Laws of Identity, Non-Contradiction, and Excluded Middle, right? Those "Laws of Logic"? I ask because your argument that these require a god, or even a religion/spirituality, makes no sense. We made up these laws of logic when we made up language and communication. Without our sentient interpretation of the universe, assigning meaning to the world around us, the universe has no objective "logic" to begin with. The universe simply exists whether or not we were ever here to even come up with the word "existing". Logic only exists…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington disagreed…4mos4MO

We made up these laws of logic when we made up language and communication.

If we made up laws of logic when we made up language and communication, how does one explain the fact that they are universal, applicable everywhere, and unchanging. If like language, they were mere products of our minds, they could not apply outside our finite minds, making them impossible to apply to the universe or world around us. If we merely used the laws of logic because they work and life goes better for us when we use them, that's well and good, but it necessitates their existence before the creation of man. And if laws or logic were just agreed upon objections, why does every…  Read more

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

If we made up laws of logic when we made up language and communication, how does one explain the fact that they are universal, applicable everywhere, and unchanging.

Because that's how language and communication works. Two people can point at a dog and call it two different things in two different languages, but both words are still referring to the exact same thing. We made up the multiple different languages that still communicate the exact same words and meanings that we assigned to things. The "laws of logic" are merely conditions of our own understanding of how we communica…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington commented…4mos4MO

If man made up the laws of logic as he made up language, they would not be universally-applicable laws at all, but rather fickle and changing as the majority decides.

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

I literally addressed this exact claim of yours in my last paragraph; did you just not read my response or are you choosing to be willfully ignorant? Here's how I explained why your statement is incorrect:

No, because the "laws of logic" are not like legal laws; the laws of logic are dependent on our own definitions of words and meanings. We did not "decide" on what the laws of logic are, the laws of logic are merely properties of language and communication. Think of it like math: we did not "make up" mathematics in the sense that we "decided that 1+1=2", we simply made up numbers Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington commented…4mos4MO

So, to clarify, the laws of logic are tools that we use because they work?

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas disagreed…4mos4MO

No, the other way around. They work BECAUSE we made up what words mean and how communication functions. The laws of logic were not some kind of objective force that we discovered and decided to utilize, like the laws of gravity or the laws of physics, nor are the laws of logic something that we decided on, like legal laws...they are simply functions derived from the made-up meanings that we created as a means of communicating. There would be no "laws of logic" if we did not make up meanings for things; there were no "laws of logic" until we created meanings and applied the…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington commented…4mos4MO

If the laws of logic are conditional upon what we all accept, we have the never changed in human history as the language changes? Language is constantly evolving! They would not be laws if they mere things made up to sort information and understand one another like language. They wouldn't be laws at all, but conventions.

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

Different languages are merely different ways of communicating the same meanings. Words mean things only because we assigned words TO meanings (or to things, actions, etc. depending on the word's parts of speech).

For example, the law of identity would posit that something that is red...is red. This is simply due to the fact that we created the word "red" specifically to describe things that "are red". Other languages will all have their own word that also just describes things that "are red". The words can be different, but the meaning that these words are…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington commented…4mos4MO

The law of identity literally means that a thing is itself. This is not something mankind can event as language, because without this basic law the universe would be unable to function. Laws of logic have nothing to do with words, they exist before human language. That's why the entire universe works in a manner perfectly consistent with logical laws, and why we are able to reason at all. With all due respect, words are not close to the same thing as universal, invariant, logical laws, because words are conventions made up by mankind.

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

This is not something mankind can event as language, because without this basic law the universe would be unable to function.

This right here shows a complete misunderstanding of what the laws of logic are and do.

The laws of logic absolutely are not a governing force of the universe itself, they are simply principles that provide an objective basis in, as the name suggests...logic. The universe itself does not have any "logic" because logic is a man-made concept; logic does not exist at all without anyone to communicate it, because logic itself is merely a property of communication.…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington commented…4mos4MO

If the laws of logic "absolutely are not a governing force of the universe itself" why do we never get x-and-not-x at the same time, in the same sense? Why is, for example, a celestial body never both a neutron star and not a neutron star at the same time? Why can two truths never be contradictory to each other? Why can the earth not be both spherical and flat at the same time? It's because, obviously, the laws of logic apply to the universe itself, otherwise they would merely exist inside our brains – and how could we expect information that evolved inside our brains to be reliable in any way, shape, or form? How without God, can we trust the reliability of the human senses, understand the rules of correct reasoning, or have any basis for basic morality? None of these questions have been answered...

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

If the laws of logic "absolutely are not a governing force of the universe itself" why do we never get x-and-not-x at the same time, in the same sense? Why is, for example, a celestial body never both a neutron star and not a neutron star at the same time?

You seem to be under the impression that "logic" is some kind of physical force that the universe must adhere to, instead of simply a man-made means for us to maintain a sense of objectivity within the world around us, which is a fundamental misunderstanding of what "logic" is in the first place. A celestial bod…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington disagreed…4mos4MO

The laws of logic DO only exist inside our brains because that is where our thoughts are. Without thought, there is no logic to think of in the first place. The laws of logic do not apply to the universe, WE are applying the laws of logic ONTO the universe.

If the laws of logic only exist because of thought, why do we need laws of logic to correct our thoughts?

If there is no "objective basis for morality ... [and it] is completely made up" then why have you repeatedly claimed that it is "wrong" to deny a woman her "bodily autonomy" by restricting abortion, and why have also claimed that it is "wrong" for capitalists to "exploit" workers? You never said that you personally believe those to be wrong, rather you claimed that they are self-evidently wrong, and that government, or society, or the maj…  Read more

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

If the laws of logic only exist because of thought, why do we need laws of logic to correct our thoughts?

What do you even mean by "correct our thoughts"..? And why do you think that thought isn't also just as necessary in doing that? Being introspective of your own thoughts...also requires thought. There is literally no world in which logic is even capable of being used without thought, because that's where it comes from.

If there is no "objective basis for morality ... [and it] is completely made up" then why have you repeatedly claimed that it is "wrong&qu…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington disagreed…4mos4MO

(1) By "correct our thoughts" I mean that, as individuals sometimes violate the principles of correct reasoning in favour of emotionalism, we need laws of logic in order to ensure we are reasoning correctly. If laws of logic were based upon what we as human beings think, then they could not be used as a tool to think or reason correctly. History demonstrates that it is the tendency of humanity to be irrational and emotional, so how could a system based upon irrational and emotional thoughts possibly be a determiner of correct reasoning and argumentation?

(2) I cannot but express dism…  Read more

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

...as individuals sometimes violate the principles of correct reasoning in favour of emotionalism...

I would first like to point out that "emotion" is not the opposite of logic. That kind of "logic vs emotion" mentality is incredibly silly and often just leads people to ignorantly assume that their own emotional beliefs are somehow "not emotional" but simply based on "facts and logic" alone.

...we need laws of logic in order to ensure we are reasoning correctly...

Sure, in terms of what we consider a "good/sound argument", yes. Again, the laws…  Read more

  @9CJ6CB6 from Virginia commented…4mos4MO

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

lol this kid is arguing that morality is objective because god made it, as well as arguing that the laws of logic prove the existence of his god. Just the typical fundamental christian arguments...

  @9CJ6CB6 from Virginia commented…4mos4MO

Ah yes, an argument that claims it has empirical evidence yet pulls up nothing but fluke historical timelines. Everytime someone says their religion is the “one true religion” I ask them what makes them have proof enough to say that.

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas agreed…4mos4MO

lol and then he has the audacity to consistently accuse me of "begging the question"; meanwhile, his entire premise is "god says it, therefore I'm right".

Him and I have had plenty of arguments on here, but this is probably the longest and most ridiculous of them...

  @9CJ6CB6 from Virginia commented…4mos4MO

I mean, I had one with them on if Hitler was a leftist. It’s still amazing to me that they really think he was left, he’s literally the furthest right in history, making a corporatocracy under a theocratic fascist society. Nothi my says far-right more than that.