I'm confused as to why your argument relies so heavily on the right to life of the fetus..? Even a fully grown and conscious adult person does not have the right to use any other person's body without their consent, even if their life is at stake, right? Because no person's right to life can overrule another person's bodily autonomy, so whether or not the fetus has the right to life in the first place would still be completely irrelevant, since even fully grown adults cannot use a person's body if they don't consent...so why should a fetus be any different, especially when its personhood is not even objective?
If you agree that we deserve the right of bodily autonomy, in which we hold the exclusive right to decide who can or cannot use our body, at any time, for any or no reason, then why should anyone, much less a fetus, be able to override that freedom?
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