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Answer Overview

Response rates from 18.4k America voters.

56%
Yes
44%
No
56%
Yes
44%
No

Historical Support

Trend of support over time for each answer from 18.4k America voters.

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Historical Importance

Trend of how important this issue is for 18.4k America voters.

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Other Popular Answers

Unique answers from America voters whose views went beyond the provided options.

 @9NTH43Q from North Carolina  answered…11mos11MO

Yes, as long as drug abuse, alcoholism, or other irresponsible behavior weren’t factors in the foreclosure

 @bunnies444  from Virginia  answered…10mos10MO

Yes, only if there is proof that the homeowner is doing everything in their power to keep their home.

 @9NJDLB2 from Massachusetts  answered…11mos11MO

 @9PT6LY3 from North Carolina  answered…11mos11MO

Yes, as long as alcoholism, drug abuse, or other forms of irresponsibility played no role in the foreclosure

 @9V9LV4Q from Kansas  answered…7mos7MO

Situational - ex. Paid mortgage for 20 years never late and became ill. Couldn’t pay mortgage because medical treatment was 7,000 a month

 @9SGS2K2 from Kansas  answered…9mos9MO

Yes, but only if they are facing foreclosure due to things out of their control. If they bought a mansion they can't afford the government should let them fail just like big businesses that overextend themselves.

 @9Q3B6HP from Texas  answered…10mos10MO

no, but there should be more help available afterwards and no penalties for first time foreclosures/evictions

 @9X38KX7 from Washington  answered…6mos6MO

It depends on why the homeowner is facing foreclosure. If the homeowner has gone through reasonable unforeseen circumstances leading to an inability to work, then yes. Otherwise, no.