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 @ISIDEWITHDiscuss this answer...5mos5MO

No

 @B53L79DRepublican from Minnesota  disagreed…4mos4MO

Flat fines disproportionately burden low-income individuals while barely affecting the wealthy. For example, a $200 speeding ticket might devastate someone earning minimum wage, potentially causing them to miss rent or skip meals, while for a millionaire, it’s a minor inconvenience, effectively no deterrent at all. If fines are supposed to deter dangerous driving and promote public safety, then they need to be meaningful for everyone. An income-based system ensures that the punishment fits not just the crime, but the individual's ability to feel the punishment.

 @B64GS6G from Indiana  disagreed…1mo1MO

If traffic fines, or any fines for law violations, are not scaled to wealth/income, the law in reality applies solely to the poor who it more harshly impacts.

 @B4FBVGLPeace and Freedom from Pennsylvania  agreed…5mos5MO

If you are rich and you are paying thousands of dollars for a traffic fine the fines would keep getting more and more expensive.

 @B3VGV2T  from California  agreed…5mos5MO

Equality Before the Law:
Critics argue that income-based fines violate the principle of equality before the law, as it suggests that wealthier individuals should be punished more severely than others, according to chsprospector.com.
Potential for Undue Hardship:
Individuals with fluctuating incomes or debts might find it difficult to pay even income-based fines, potentially leading to further financial hardship or legal consequences, according to the Centre for Justice Innovation.
Complexity of Implementation:
Some argue that implementing a comprehensive income-based fine system could be…  Read more

 @ISIDEWITHDiscuss this answer...5mos5MO

Yes

 @B4G5S37 from Missouri  disagreed…5mos5MO

You shouldn't be given a worse punishment just because you get paid more or less. A crime is a crime regardless

 @8TBYD5QCommunist from California  disagreed…1mo1MO

#1 Engaged Criminal Issues #2 Engaged Counter Argument

The point of a fine is to be a deterrent. A deterrent should be enough to hurt, but not enough to ruin someone's life. Someone making $250,000 a year isn't hurt by a $200 ticket. It means that they get to do whatever they want as long as they have the money to pay for it. Meanwhile someone who makes $15,000 a year could be ruined by a $200 ticket. It could mean they don't get to eat that month or lose their car or housing. A crime isn't a crime when you just have to pay a pittance relative to your income to get out of it.

 @B4NB4W5Democrat from California  agreed…5mos5MO

2.6 million people are injured and 42,000 people die from reckless driving annually in the US. Victims from reckless driving don’t deserve injury or death.

People make different levels of income. If you make $500 a month, a $200 ticket has significant weight on you and is a strong deterrent for behavior. If you make $200,000 a month, a $200 ticket has almost no weight on your decision making.

Fines for civil penalties only exist as a working deterrent for behavior, therefore, a percentage-based fine would be a stronger deterrent and in this case, lead to safer driving.

 @B4FBVGLPeace and Freedom from Pennsylvania  disagreed…5mos5MO

I think that all traffic fines should be equal and you shouldn't need to pay more if you got more money.

 @B4F6WVB from Florida  disagreed…5mos5MO

Traffic fines should not dive below a minimum value for punitive effect even for low-income drivers. Upper-middle-class families should not have to pay more than other middle class families.

 @B5RT93J from Alaska  answered…3mos3MO

Not on the driver's income level, but maybe on the class or cost/value of the vehicle involved. Example: an equivalent speeding violation would cost more for a driver of a ferrari than it would for a driver of a honda.

 @B63KF8Z from Minnesota  answered…2mos2MO

traffic laws should only be there in matters of deciding who is at fault for someone getting hurt or property getting destroyed. Speed limits should usually just be a recommendation that helps avoid property damage, death of others, or maintain optimal fuel efficiency on highways.

 @B5XR5P5 from Utah  answered…2mos2MO

No, that will only allow police departments to financially take advantage of higher-income drivers and pose a higher risk of low-income drivers on the road.

 @B5X29HV from Washington  answered…2mos2MO

Yes, speeding & any other traffic violation should result in 1% of the persons annual salary. $10K = $100 fine. $20K = $200 fine. 30K = $300 fine. Etc.

 @B623TDLConstitution from Wyoming  answered…2mos2MO

No, and remove most traffic violations as they are just another form of taxation without representation.

 @B5VWM93 from Vermont  answered…2mos2MO

There shouldn't be a monetary fine, rather an actual jail time or course that needs to be completed. Financial punishments would be too hard to regulate. Someone may have no reported income so they might not have a fine large enough to deter a repeat offense.

 @B4RTXBZfrom Maine  answered…5mos5MO

Fines for low income can be life altering Fines for rich are a suggestion YES, it should be proportional to what that fine would be for low income households or it won't change anyones behaviour to laws ever.

 @B6RMZKZ from Idaho  answered…3 days3D

It should vary on how big the crime is and how many times the suspect has committed said crime or something similar.

 @B6R7756 from California  answered…4 days4D

Depending on the severity of the violation. If the violation is more minor, the cost should be compared with the drivers income. If the violation is more major, the fine will not be compared and will result in a much more expensive fine.

 @B6M3XGJDemocrat from Georgia  answered…2wks2W

Yes, but better remove financial penalty, and instead use privilege-punitive escalation system -- e.g. expand on current points system. I.e. 3-points imposes some small limitation, if accumulate 6-points, can drive highways, 9-points, can't drive after dusk, or drive only home/work/school destinations, 12-points loses license for a period of time. This way, rich don't get out with (for them) minor penalty, while poor aren't hit with penalty that may cause inability to pay rent and other far severe adverse penalties outside vehicle operation penalties.

 @B6KC36Z from Georgia  answered…2wks2W

Yes, I believe the penalty for traffic violations should depend on the drivers income in a general stance. However, if someone is speeding and they're going 90 mph in a 45 mph zone, then I think there shouldn't be such leniency on the traffic violation penalty because then that's just negligent driving.

 @B6K2NQRDemocrat from Utah  answered…3wks3W

This is very nuanced. I think that they should be the same, but I think that income should be a consideration at the least. Payment plans also help with this.

 @B6GQP2M from Indiana  answered…4wks4W

No. The fine should be based on the severity of the crime itself, not the offender's ability to pay.

 @B6GLV9B from Maryland  answered…4wks4W

Yes, except for violations like a DUI in which the person very well could have led to serious harm to others.

 @B6DZSMY from Texas  answered…1mo1MO

No they shouldnt lets be honest that seems extortionate you might have cops start pulling over wealthy poeple can taking a bribe that costs less than the ticket. Its honestly a bad not thought out policy opinion

 @B5MTSBH from North Carolina  answered…3mos3MO

Traffic cops are racketeering. Violations should only ever include wreckless driving or drunk driving.

 @B63X6TP from Michigan  answered…1mo1MO

Kind of, if they are poor yes they should pay less, if they are rich they should pay 5% more, middle class, no.

 @jacob.brandSocialist  from Missouri  answered…2mos2MO

Yes, traffic violations should not be "legal for a price" for people who can easily afford to pay the fine

 @B5ZGHYDDemocrat from Tennessee  answered…2mos2MO

No, but the share of people getting traffic violations should be as close to equitable of a population as possible.

 @B5ZGVNGRepublican  from Illinois  answered…2mos2MO

Absolutely Not if low income people have lesser penalties it encourages them to not follow traffic laws as seriously because they won’t be punished

 @ProudJew  from Tennessee  answered…2mos2MO

Penalties should be based on actual harm and severity, not income. However, the current system creates disproportionate punishment for the poor through cascading consequences (insurance suspension, impoundment, inability to fight tickets). Reform should focus on eliminating poverty-based license suspensions and providing payment plans/community service options rather than income-based fines that could be gamed by the wealthy.

 @B5WWGRXRepublican from Arizona  answered…2mos2MO

Yes, do it if the driver is ALWAYS going over the speed limit in my city streets. And even if they're using their smartphones while driving, PENALIZE THEM.

 @8PZG6MWProgressive  from Illinois  answered…2mos2MO

Yes, but within reason. Not necessarily a sliding scale, but a higher percentage for high-net-worth individuals on repeat offenses. It should also increase for repeated offenses in a certain time frame in general, but not to the point of financially locking low-income individuals.

 @B5VFL5H from Texas  answered…3mos3MO

I believe their should be a cap, but low-income individuals should be able to receive lower fines (have them answer questions)

 @B5TJKDW from Texas  answered…3mos3MO

Yes, but only for reducing the amount payed, not increasing it for regular or high income individuals

 Deletedanswered…3mos3MO

The traffic violation penalties shouldn't be based on income, instead give them a cohesive warnings and fines based off their actions.

 @B5N8YC8Green from Florida  answered…3mos3MO

Yes, a lot of traffic violations like speeding tend to only be illegal if you don’t have the money to spend hundreds of dollars on a fine

 @B5G7TH6Libertarian from Kansas  answered…4mos4MO

Yes, but it should only lower the penalty for below average income individuals, not raise them for higher income individuals.

 @B5F6VCZ from Minnesota  answered…4mos4MO

Yes only for repeating offenders and the penalty amount hasn't stopped them from repeating the crime

 @B5DN8N5 from Florida  answered…4mos4MO

Yes, but only when statewide minimum fines by offense are set. It would not be a program to punish lower income individuals but to end the perceived notion that for the ultra wealthy fines are merely a paid pass to break the law.

 @B58Z9BHLibertarian from South Carolina  answered…4mos4MO

Drivers should be given the option to take a drivers education course to erase the fine and points, or the driver can keep the points and do community service to pay off the fine. Have options for repayment that do not handicap the driver base on income.

 @B57RWF2 from Montana  answered…4mos4MO

Yes, and it should be reasonable to where the person in question can pay it all off in under a month.

 @B54GC83 from Louisiana  answered…4mos4MO

No, but it should be taken into consideration. It’s not fair that the wealthy can buy their way out & the poor end up in jail over traffic violations

 @B4YNCSVDemocrat from Utah  answered…4mos4MO

For serious traffic violations, the penalty (jail and/or fines) should be whichever would deter repeated violations the most

 @B4WYC6R  from Colorado  answered…4mos4MO

Yes, unless they are repeat offenders the fines and penalties should increase based on the income first and then should move to an exponential growth and penalty base to deter further infractions

 @B4WTGTBNo Labels from Georgia  answered…4mos4MO

Yes, but dependent on how severe/dangerous the violation was. If it was speeding on a highway (like 10-15 over the speed limit) where no one was endangered by the violator's actions, then it should be based to how they can pay it.

 @SpaceManBob  from Florida  answered…5mos5MO

#3 Engaged Criminal Issues

Yes, as the purpose of fines for traffic violations is to deter and to punish, both of which only work when the fine is relative to the individual's wealth

 @B4FH92K from Virginia  answered…5mos5MO

It depends on whether the driver does traffic violations often or not. I think if it is often then it does not matter what their income is, but if it rarely happens maybe their income could matter.

 @B4FDFX2 from Indiana  answered…5mos5MO

I don't think many traffic violations should exist at all. Penalties for causing damage or injury only.

 @B4FD45S from New Jersey  answered…5mos5MO

It depends on what traffic law it is and how it happened/why it happened, however, some people would abuse the power of being able to pay the fines if their income suddenly grows and their system isn't updated OR those who are wealthy enough will easily be able to pay their fines and overcome their cases. So it would be nice for those in the lower-middle class should be given a smaller amount for their fines but overall it depends.

 @B4FCD3J from Pennsylvania  answered…5mos5MO

should not allow the offender to go into debt if it is not serious but for more serious crimes they may be charged however

 @B5488HC from Ohio  answered…4mos4MO

If the person who violates traffic they should have to pay whatever amount they have to because they made that decision when they violated traffic laws in the first place.

 @RobinHoudeSocialist from Georgia  answered…4mos4MO

Yes, this prevents traffic violation penalties from merely being a slap on the wrist for the wealthy

 @B4RQ5B2Socialist from Georgia  answered…5mos5MO

No, I think penalties should be different depending on income (ex: community service as an alternative for lower-class)

 @B4QPJ2P from Pennsylvania  answered…5mos5MO

Sliding scale based on severity of offense and driving record with flexible payment plans depending on income

 @B4N2G9TNo Labels from North Dakota  answered…5mos5MO

for the most part yes. There are different circumstances such as someone going 100 in a 25, than clearly a much higher ticket should be given regardless of income

 @B4HXVRF from Massachusetts  answered…5mos5MO

No, when you commit a crime, you must be punished regardless of your income. The punishment must fit the crime for all.

 @B4GDX2YIndependent from New Jersey  answered…5mos5MO

Yes, day-fines should be more widely implemented to stop the rich from overstepping the law just because they can easily afford the fines.

 @B4G3RQVNo Labels from Illinois  answered…5mos5MO

Yes, however if there is no income, then community service should be given but if habitual then should receive jail time relative to the offense

 @B4G3JVX  from Tennessee  answered…5mos5MO

We should never lessen a charge, but increase it for extremely wealthy who wouldn’t otherwise feel the effects of a monetary punishment. Prison time though, should be irrelevant of income.

 @B4FZTP9 from Alabama  answered…5mos5MO

No, but a non-payment option should be available if the person can prove economic hardship (I.e., community service, education, etc.)

 @B4FNB5QIndependent from Idaho  answered…5mos5MO

Yes, so long as the amount is capped so as to not exceed that which is cruel and unusual and the judge is to decide that what amount is appropriate.

 @Dry550Independent  from Illinois  answered…5mos5MO

No, if you can afford a car and a license, you should be able to pay whatever fine for the traffic violation, payment plans can be set up, but it should go by a specific court basis

 @B4F492Q from Michigan  answered…5mos5MO

Yes, because some people could be living paycheck to paycheck, and if they get a parking ticket they might not be able to eat or get goods that they need for them elves or their family.

 @B4DWBPG from Wisconsin  answered…5mos5MO

Yes, in the context of any rich egotistical citizen undeniably commiting repeat violations for the fact it won't hurt the way they live their life after putting others at risk.

 @B4G5WRRRepublican  from Texas  answered…5mos5MO

it should be on a case to case system like if someone doesnt stop at a stop sign but theres no one else around then i think it should be based on the drivers income.

 @B4G428T from Michigan  answered…5mos5MO

Income dependence would be discrimination. However, if one was to continue getting traffic violations after a warning, they should be charged the same amount and more if they continue to violate traffic laws. Depending on severity is also a possible factor.

 @B4G3Y6W from North Carolina  answered…5mos5MO

should be where it is enough to cover it but not so much that it will leave a big delt in someones bank so yes

 @B4FVDDG from Indiana  answered…5mos5MO

depends on the severity of the traffic violation- lesser violations the fee should depend on income- but like drinking and driving the fee should be high and the same

 @B4FTM3HIndependent from Tennessee  answered…5mos5MO

Yes, as this is the only way to prevent higher-income individuals from committing traffic violations.

  @WildManBagginzIndependent  from Illinois  answered…5mos5MO

Yes. It should be a penalty and punishment. But not put one at jeopardy of not being able to provide for their themselves or family. They should be stressed to by their normal wants. But they shouldn't be punished so severly that it prevents them from purchasing their needs.

 @B4DNG9J from Arizona  answered…5mos5MO

if they have low income and it wasnt like GTA violations or anything to bad they should be giving the chnage to have a lower penalty

 @B4FVXQN from Illinois  answered…5mos5MO

Based off financial income I believe if the fine is fair and constitutional of the law, then it is fair for the wealthy to get the same treatment as well, and to pay the proper fine of their actions.

 @B4W552L from Kansas  answered…4mos4MO

Traffic violations should not be based on money, but on community service or other forms of punishment.

 @B4G5XXG from North Carolina  answered…5mos5MO

If it is a major issue, like a death due to a car crash, the punishment should be the same regardless of income. Otherwise, I'm fine with based-on-income penalties.

 @B6KB3RZ from West Virginia  answered…2wks2W

Yes, this will hold people who make a lot of money accountable and keep poorer people from paying too much of their income when they're held accountable.

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