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 @ISIDEWITHDiscuss this answer...1mo1MO

No

 @B53L79DRepublican from Minnesota  disagreed…2wks2W

Flat fines disproportionately burden low-income individuals while barely affecting the wealthy. For example, a $200 speeding ticket might devastate someone earning minimum wage, potentially causing them to miss rent or skip meals, while for a millionaire, it’s a minor inconvenience, effectively no deterrent at all. If fines are supposed to deter dangerous driving and promote public safety, then they need to be meaningful for everyone. An income-based system ensures that the punishment fits not just the crime, but the individual's ability to feel the punishment.

 @B3VGV2T  from California  agreed…3wks3W

Equality Before the Law:
Critics argue that income-based fines violate the principle of equality before the law, as it suggests that wealthier individuals should be punished more severely than others, according to chsprospector.com.
Potential for Undue Hardship:
Individuals with fluctuating incomes or debts might find it difficult to pay even income-based fines, potentially leading to further financial hardship or legal consequences, according to the Centre for Justice Innovation.
Complexity of Implementation:
Some argue that implementing a comprehensive income-based fine system could be…  Read more

 @B4NB4W5Democrat from California  disagreed…4wks4W

Penalties only have value if they have impact on you.

If we truly want traffic violations to mean something, the penalty has to be high enough for it to want to be avoided.

If you make $1M+ a year, a $200 speeding ticket is essentially valueless and not enough to warrant a behavioral shift. Reckless driving can lead to harm and puts the general public at risk.

 @B4PSNZV from California  disagreed…4wks4W

For someone of low income, a traffic ticket is a huge burden. But for someone who is rich the traffic ticket is a no biggie. If the traffic tickets were income based then the rich would care more about following the law. Also there would be more tax revenue and more equal treatment of the law.

 @ISIDEWITHDiscuss this answer...1mo1MO

Yes

 @B3VGV2T  from California  disagreed…3wks3W

They raise concerns about the principle of equality before the law and the potential for undue hardship for those with debts or fluctuating incomes.

 @B4NB4W5Democrat from California  agreed…4wks4W

2.6 million people are injured and 42,000 people die from reckless driving annually in the US. Victims from reckless driving don’t deserve injury or death.

People make different levels of income. If you make $500 a month, a $200 ticket has significant weight on you and is a strong deterrent for behavior. If you make $200,000 a month, a $200 ticket has almost no weight on your decision making.

Fines for civil penalties only exist as a working deterrent for behavior, therefore, a percentage-based fine would be a stronger deterrent and in this case, lead to safer driving.

 @B4PSNZV from California  agreed…4wks4W

For someone of low income, a traffic ticket is a huge burden. But for someone who is rich the traffic ticket is a no biggie. If the traffic tickets were income based then the rich would care more about following the law. The whole point of traffic tickets is to prevent behavior, not punish poor people. Also there would be more tax revenue and more equal treatment of the law.

 @B4G5S37 from Missouri  disagreed…1mo1MO

You shouldn't be given a worse punishment just because you get paid more or less. A crime is a crime regardless

 @B4RTXBZfrom Maine  answered…3wks3W

Fines for low income can be life altering Fines for rich are a suggestion YES, it should be proportional to what that fine would be for low income households or it won't change anyones behaviour to laws ever.

 @B58Z9BHLibertarian from South Carolina  answered…6 days6D

Drivers should be given the option to take a drivers education course to erase the fine and points, or the driver can keep the points and do community service to pay off the fine. Have options for repayment that do not handicap the driver base on income.

 @B57RWF2 from Montana  answered…1wk1W

Yes, and it should be reasonable to where the person in question can pay it all off in under a month.

 @B54GC83 from Louisiana  answered…2wks2W

No, but it should be taken into consideration. It’s not fair that the wealthy can buy their way out & the poor end up in jail over traffic violations

 @B5488HC from Ohio  answered…2wks2W

If the person who violates traffic they should have to pay whatever amount they have to because they made that decision when they violated traffic laws in the first place.

 @B4YNCSVDemocrat from Utah  answered…2wks2W

For serious traffic violations, the penalty (jail and/or fines) should be whichever would deter repeated violations the most

 @B4WYC6R  from Colorado  answered…3wks3W

Yes, unless they are repeat offenders the fines and penalties should increase based on the income first and then should move to an exponential growth and penalty base to deter further infractions

 @B4WTGTBNo Labels from Georgia  answered…3wks3W

Yes, but dependent on how severe/dangerous the violation was. If it was speeding on a highway (like 10-15 over the speed limit) where no one was endangered by the violator's actions, then it should be based to how they can pay it.

 @SpaceManBob  from Florida  answered…1mo1MO

#2 Engaged Criminal Issues

Yes, as the purpose of fines for traffic violations is to deter and to punish, both of which only work when the fine is relative to the individual's wealth

 @B4FH92K from Virginia  answered…1mo1MO

It depends on whether the driver does traffic violations often or not. I think if it is often then it does not matter what their income is, but if it rarely happens maybe their income could matter.

 @B4FDFX2 from Indiana  answered…1mo1MO

I don't think many traffic violations should exist at all. Penalties for causing damage or injury only.

 @B4FD45S from New Jersey  answered…1mo1MO

It depends on what traffic law it is and how it happened/why it happened, however, some people would abuse the power of being able to pay the fines if their income suddenly grows and their system isn't updated OR those who are wealthy enough will easily be able to pay their fines and overcome their cases. So it would be nice for those in the lower-middle class should be given a smaller amount for their fines but overall it depends.

 @B4FCD3J from Pennsylvania  answered…1mo1MO

should not allow the offender to go into debt if it is not serious but for more serious crimes they may be charged however

 @RobinHoudeSocialist from Georgia  answered…3wks3W

Yes, this prevents traffic violation penalties from merely being a slap on the wrist for the wealthy

 @B4RQ5B2Socialist from Georgia  answered…3wks3W

No, I think penalties should be different depending on income (ex: community service as an alternative for lower-class)

 @B4QPJ2P from Pennsylvania  answered…4wks4W

Sliding scale based on severity of offense and driving record with flexible payment plans depending on income

 @B4N2G9TNo Labels from North Dakota  answered…4wks4W

for the most part yes. There are different circumstances such as someone going 100 in a 25, than clearly a much higher ticket should be given regardless of income

 @B4HXVRF from Massachusetts  answered…1mo1MO

No, when you commit a crime, you must be punished regardless of your income. The punishment must fit the crime for all.

 @B4GDX2YIndependent from New Jersey  answered…1mo1MO

Yes, day-fines should be more widely implemented to stop the rich from overstepping the law just because they can easily afford the fines.

 @B4G3RQVNo Labels from Illinois  answered…1mo1MO

Yes, however if there is no income, then community service should be given but if habitual then should receive jail time relative to the offense

 @B4G3JVX  from Tennessee  answered…1mo1MO

We should never lessen a charge, but increase it for extremely wealthy who wouldn’t otherwise feel the effects of a monetary punishment. Prison time though, should be irrelevant of income.

 @B4FZTP9 from Alabama  answered…1mo1MO

No, but a non-payment option should be available if the person can prove economic hardship (I.e., community service, education, etc.)

 @B4FNB5QIndependent from Idaho  answered…1mo1MO

Yes, so long as the amount is capped so as to not exceed that which is cruel and unusual and the judge is to decide that what amount is appropriate.

 @Dry550Independent  from Illinois  answered…1mo1MO

No, if you can afford a car and a license, you should be able to pay whatever fine for the traffic violation, payment plans can be set up, but it should go by a specific court basis

 @B4F492Q from Michigan  answered…1mo1MO

Yes, because some people could be living paycheck to paycheck, and if they get a parking ticket they might not be able to eat or get goods that they need for them elves or their family.

 @B4DWBPG from Wisconsin  answered…1mo1MO

Yes, in the context of any rich egotistical citizen undeniably commiting repeat violations for the fact it won't hurt the way they live their life after putting others at risk.

 @B4G5WRRRepublican  from Texas  answered…1mo1MO

it should be on a case to case system like if someone doesnt stop at a stop sign but theres no one else around then i think it should be based on the drivers income.

 @B4G428T from Michigan  answered…1mo1MO

Income dependence would be discrimination. However, if one was to continue getting traffic violations after a warning, they should be charged the same amount and more if they continue to violate traffic laws. Depending on severity is also a possible factor.

 @B4G3Y6W from North Carolina  answered…1mo1MO

should be where it is enough to cover it but not so much that it will leave a big delt in someones bank so yes

 @B4FVDDG from Indiana  answered…1mo1MO

depends on the severity of the traffic violation- lesser violations the fee should depend on income- but like drinking and driving the fee should be high and the same

 @B4FTM3HIndependent from Tennessee  answered…1mo1MO

Yes, as this is the only way to prevent higher-income individuals from committing traffic violations.

  @WildManBagginzIndependent  from Illinois  answered…1mo1MO

Yes. It should be a penalty and punishment. But not put one at jeopardy of not being able to provide for their themselves or family. They should be stressed to by their normal wants. But they shouldn't be punished so severly that it prevents them from purchasing their needs.

 @B4DNG9J from Arizona  answered…1mo1MO

if they have low income and it wasnt like GTA violations or anything to bad they should be giving the chnage to have a lower penalty

 @B4G5XXG from North Carolina  answered…1mo1MO

If it is a major issue, like a death due to a car crash, the punishment should be the same regardless of income. Otherwise, I'm fine with based-on-income penalties.

 @B4W552L from Kansas  answered…3wks3W

Traffic violations should not be based on money, but on community service or other forms of punishment.

 @B5DN8N5 from Florida  answered…8mins8m

Yes, but only when statewide minimum fines by offense are set. It would not be a program to punish lower income individuals but to end the perceived notion that for the ultra wealthy fines are merely a paid pass to break the law.

 @B4FVXQN from Illinois  answered…1mo1MO

Based off financial income I believe if the fine is fair and constitutional of the law, then it is fair for the wealthy to get the same treatment as well, and to pay the proper fine of their actions.

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